The biggest problem we have with all of this
, is that we are so long removed from the time period.
First of all,
"Says Tacitus around 115 A.D., in Annals, XV, 44: "Christus [the Latin spelling of "Christ"], from whom the name [Christians] had its origin, suffered the extreme penalty [crucifixion] during the reign of Tiberius at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilate...."
this quote could have been written for at least 3 reasons. 1) written at a later date to "provide evidence" that Jesus was really crucified, 2) to justify more persecutions by Roman rule (they didn't learn it the first time kinda thing) or 3) to try and stop Nero from further persecutions (which were totally devestating and beyond our comprehension today) by establishing that the error had already been corrected. BUT--bottom line, we don't know which it was...
is an anagram (a word made by transposing letters) for the Greek word "parthenos" meaning "virgin"!
Perhaps, but still "virgin" did not necessarily mean "without having the hymen breached" but rather, just an "unmarried woman." Priestesses in the temple were "virgins" but were often used in "procreating" a certain bloodline. So while they were certainly protected from intercourse with just anybody, they were more importantly unwed.
During ancient times, there were not laws protecting the rights of women. The raping of women was very commonplace, and yet was also a serious source of shame for them. But, as a usual rule, there was no real punishment for a rapist, even if he did get brought before the governors.
So, "virgin" was a "protected" woman, usually kept safe in religious temples.
Jewish idiom into PANDERA
That may also be true, but in the Hebrew language a combination word can be formed from this: PAN="for the aversion of" and DERA="object of abhorrence"
SO, PANDERA could also mean "aversion for an object of abhorrence", i.e. Jesus as the Messiah.
This does not prove or disprove the existence of Jesus. But back to your initial question, there is NO physical evidence that Jesus as a man ever existed.
It is important to state here, that there were many Jews around this time claiming to be the Messiah--which in Greek is "Christos." So, the first quote could be talking about any of these messiahs, and there were even two (that we know of) differenet messianic figures that were known as "Jesus." People oftentimes took "names" that would fit their calling, or lend credence to their words, and this was no exception...Jesus means "salvation" or perhaps better put in its verbal form "to save, or to deliver" and all messianic figures were offering that...